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(c)
Advance request for recording; execution. A valid advance request for
14surgical procedure recording shall be all of the following:
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1. In writing.
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2. Dated and signed by the principal or by an individual who has attained age
1718, at the express direction and in the presence of the principal.
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3. Signed in the presence of a witness who is an individual who has attained
19the age 18.
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4. Voluntarily executed.
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(d)
Revocation. A principal may revoke his or her advance request for surgical
22procedure recording instrument at any time by doing any of the following:
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1. Canceling, defacing, obliterating, burning, tearing, or otherwise destroying
24the advance request for surgical procedure recording instrument or directing
1another in the presence of the principal to so destroy the advance request for surgical
2procedure recording instrument.
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2. Executing a statement, in writing, that is signed and dated by the principal,
4expressing the principal's intent to revoke the advance request for surgical procedure
5recording instrument.
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3. Verbally expressing the desire to revoke the advance request for surgical
7procedure recording instrument in the presence of a witness.
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4. Executing a subsequent advance request for surgical procedure recording
9instrument that replaces an existing advance request for surgical procedure
10recording instrument.
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11(13) Penalties. (a) Except as provided under sub. (6), a health care provider
12who knowingly refuses to comply with a surgical patient request to have his or her
13surgical procedure or discharge instructions recorded may be subject to a forfeiture
14of not more than $25,000 for each violation.
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(b) Except as provided under sub. (6), a surgical facility that fails to provide a
16notice required under sub. (2) (b) may be subject to a forfeiture of not more than
17$25,000 for each violation.
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(c) 1. Any person who negligently interferes with or violates a surgical patient's
19advance request for surgical procedures recording instrument created under sub.
20(12) without the consent of the principal shall be subject to a fine of at least $500 but
21not more than $1,000.
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2. Any person who intentionally interferes with or violates a surgical patient's
23advance request for surgical procedures recording instrument created under sub.
24(12), including intentionally concealing, canceling, defacing, obliterating, damaging,
1or destroying the instrument without the consent of the principal may be fined not
2more than $5,000.
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(d) 1. For purposes of this paragraph, “disclosure” means to effect the provision
4of access to, or the release, transfer, or divulging in any manner of information
5outside those persons or entities authorized under in this section.
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2. Except as otherwise authorized under this section, if a surgical practitioner
7or other health care provider discloses a recording made under this section, the
8standards and penalties for violations relating to patient health care records
9described under s. 146.84 shall apply.
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3. A surgical patient, or another person on behalf of a surgical patient, who
11intentionally discloses a recording made under this section in violation of sub. (2) (e)
12may be fined not more than $3,000 per violation. If a person affirmatively discloses
13a recording made under this section on a social media platform, that disclosure shall
14constitute a single violation, regardless of whether the disclosure is subsequently
15redisclosed by other social media participants. Each subsequent disclosure on a
16separate platform shall be considered a separate violation.
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4. Whoever threatens, with intent to extort money or any pecuniary advantage
18whatever, or with intent to compel the person so threatened to do any act against the
19person's will, to disseminate or to communicate to anyone, or, except as otherwise
20authorized under this section, does disseminate or communicate to anyone,
21information related to a recording under this section is guilty of a Class I felony. For
22the purpose of this subdivision, “information" has the meaning given in s. 943.31.
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23(14) Forfeiture procedure. (a) The department may directly assess
24forfeitures provided for under sub. (13). If the department determines that a
25forfeiture should be assessed for a particular violation, the department shall send a
1notice of assessment to the health care provider. The notice shall specify the amount
2of the forfeiture assessed, the violation and the statute or rule alleged to have been
3violated, and shall inform the hospital of the right to a hearing under par. (b).
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(b) A health care provider may contest an assessment of a forfeiture by sending,
5within 30 days after receipt of notice under par. (a), a written request for a hearing
6under s. 227.44 to the division of hearings and appeals created under s. 15.103 (1).
7The administrator of the division may designate a hearing examiner to preside over
8the case and recommend a decision to the administrator under s. 227.46. The
9decision of the administrator of the division shall be the final administrative
10decision. The division shall commence the hearing within 60 days after receipt of the
11request for a hearing and shall issue a final decision within 30 days after the close
12of the hearing. Proceedings before the division are governed by ch. 227. In any
13petition for judicial review of a decision by the division, the party, other than the
14petitioner, who was in the proceeding before the division shall be the named
15respondent.
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(c) All forfeitures shall be paid to the department within 30 days after receipt
17of notice of assessment or, if the forfeiture is contested under par. (b), within 30 days
18after receipt of the final decision after exhaustion of administrative review, unless
19the final decision is appealed and the order is stayed by court order. The department
20shall remit all forfeitures paid to the secretary of administration for deposit in the
21injured patients and families compensation fund under s. 655.27.
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(d)
The attorney general may bring an action in the name of the state to collect
23any forfeiture imposed under sub. (13) if the forfeiture has not been paid following
24the exhaustion of all administrative and judicial reviews. The only issue to be
25contested in any such action shall be whether the forfeiture has been paid.
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1Section
2. 146.81 (4) of the statutes is amended to read:
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146.81
(4) “Patient health care records" means all records related to the health
3of a patient prepared by or under the supervision of a health care provider;
all
4recordings under s. 50.373 related to the surgical patient; and all records made by
5an ambulance service provider, as defined in s. 256.01 (3), an emergency medical
6services practitioner, as defined in s. 256.01 (5), or an emergency medical responder,
7as defined in s. 256.01 (4p), in administering emergency care procedures to and
8handling and transporting sick, disabled, or injured individuals. “Patient health
9care records" includes billing statements and invoices for treatment or services
10provided by a health care provider and includes health summary forms prepared
11under s. 302.388 (2). “Patient health care records" does not include those records
12subject to s. 51.30, reports collected under s. 69.186, records of tests administered
13under s. 252.15 (5g) or (5j), 343.305, 938.296 (4) or (5) or 968.38 (4) or (5), records
14related to sales of pseudoephedrine products, as defined in s. 961.01 (20c), that are
15maintained by pharmacies under s. 961.235, fetal monitor tracings, as defined under
16s. 146.817 (1), or a pupil's physical health records maintained by a school under s.
17118.125.
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18Section 3
. 146.83 (3f) (b) 3m. of the statutes is created to read:
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146.83
(3f) (b) 3m. Except as provided in s. 50.373, for a copy of a video
20recording of a surgical procedure or discharge instructions, $25 per copy.
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21Section 4
. 655.27 (1g) of the statutes is created to read:
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655.27
(1g) Deposit of forfeitures. Forfeitures paid under s. 50.373 (13) shall
23be deposited in the fund under sub. (1).
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24Section 5
.
Nonstatutory provisions.
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1(1)
Emergency rules. Using the procedure under s. 227.24, the department of
2health services shall promulgate the rules required under s. 50.373 for the period
3before the effective date of the permanent rules promulgated under s. 50.373 but not
4to exceed the period authorized under s. 227.24 (1) (c), subject to extension under s.
5227.24 (2). Notwithstanding s. 227.24 (1) (a), (2) (b), and (3), the department of health
6services is not required to provide evidence that promulgating a rule under this
7subsection as an emergency rule is necessary for the preservation of the public peace,
8health, safety, or welfare and is not required to provide a finding of emergency for a
9rule promulgated under this subsection. Notwithstanding s. 227.24 (1) (e) 1d., the
10department of health services is not required to prepare a statement of the scope of
11the rules promulgated under this subsection. Notwithstanding s. 227.24 (1) (e) 1g.,
12the department of health services is not required to present the rules promulgated
13under this subsection to the governor for approval.
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14Section 6
.
Effective dates. This act takes effect on the first day of the 13th
15month beginning after publication, except as follows:
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(1)
Section 5 (1
) of this act takes effect on the day after publication.